Wednesday, February 11, 2009

Gay "marriage" discrimination?

No person can argue that prop 8 or similar legislation is
discrimination. To be discrimination you have to be treating one
person or group differently that another person or group. This is
simply not the case with the gay "marriage" issue.

It might be argued something like "you can get married and I can't, so
that is discrimination", but that couldn't b further from the truth.
Let's assume this person is a man "You can get married, just not to
another man, but I am in that exact same circumstance, I cannot marry
another man either". The law acts equally on all people, regardless of
their desires.

As a simple correlation let's take illegal drugs I would never be
remotely interested in using them just as I would never be remotely
interested in marrying a guy. On the other side I am free to purchase
and use aspirin. Someone else would like to use illegal drugs, instead
of aspirin, does that mean that laws against these drugs are
discriminatory against this person. The laws act the same on both
people and no claim for discrimination can be made.

There may be other valid starting points for the gay "marriage"
movement, but claiming discrimination is totally missing the mark.

Super Guy
(on the move)

1 comment:

Mellissa said...

I really like the way you put that idea. I totally agree, and now have a good argument in my corner. Thanks, Superguy!