give the general idea anyway. Can "sanctions" imposed against a
country affect the government, yet not the citizens? That sounds
absolutely ridiculous to me, but AP attributed the idea to or Defense
Secretary.
This was regarding North Korea, can we really think that in doing
something to "the communist government" that it wouldn't be reflected
in the lives of the the citizens?
I think a good comparison might be if someone were to punish head of
households by reducing his ability to earn money. Does this affect his
family? You bet it does, they have to compensate or endure.
Similarly we could look at a business example let's say manufacturing.
If trade with the company is blocked to some degree then production
would most likely have to be reduced and this hurts the workers who
might be laid off.
Other thoughts on government.
Government consists of the people, it is the people, if they refuse
the current establishment they "can" (to varying degrees) change it.
Our government was established on the principle that government exists
by the consent of the governed check the Declaration of Independance.
The declaration was made by "the Authority of the good People" do we
realize that we have authority? We do have authority as long as we
remember and are willing to exercise it, but if we forget then our
authority begins to erode as we yield our rights to the governing
until our ability to change things may be nearly gone, or at least
seemingly so.
Super Guy
(on the move)
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